108 年 國立成功大學財務金融研究所《財務管理》

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第 1 題

  1. If Diplomat goes ahead with this project today, it will obtain knowledge that will give rise to additional opportunities 5 years from now (at t = 5). The company can decide at t = 5 whether or not it wants to pursue these additional opportunities. Based on the best information available today, there is a 35% probability that the outlook will be favorable, in which case the future investment opportunity will have a net present value of 6millionatt=5.Thereisa656 million at t = 5. There is a 65% probability that the outlook will be unfavorable, in which case the future investment opportunity will have a net present value of -6 million at t = 5. Diplomat.com does not have to decide today whether it wants to pursue the additional opportunity. Instead, it can wait to see what the outlook is. However, the company cannot pursue the future opportunity unless it makes the 3millioninvestmenttoday.Whatistheestimatednetpresentvalueoftheproject,afterconsiderationofthepotentialfutureopportunity?a.−3 million investment today. What is the estimated net present value of the project, after consideration of the potential future opportunity? a. -1,104,607
    b. -875,203c.875,203 c. 199,328
    d. 561,947e.561,947 e. 898,205

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念
本題測驗的是 實際選擇權(Real Option) 的概念:

  • 投資者先支付一定的「前期投入」取得未來的選擇權,未來若情況有利可行使,情況不利則放棄。
  • 核心公式為
    NPV=−C0+E[Payofft=5](1+r)5\text{NPV}= -C_0+\frac{E[\text{Payoff}_{t=5}]}{(1+r)^5}
    其中 C0C_0 為今日投入、rr 為貼現率,E[Payofft=5]E[\text{Payoff}_{t=5}] 為在 t=5t=5 時依機率取得的期望現金流。

解題方法

  1. 確定未來機會的實際 payoff

    • 若未來展望 有利(p=0.35p=0.35),未來機會的 NPV 為 +6 M,公司必定接受。
    • 若未來展望 不利(p=0.65p=0.65),NPV 為 ‑6 M,但公司可以在 t=5t=5 再決定是否投入,因負值而 放棄,實際 payoff 為 0。

    因此在 t=5t=5 時的期望 payoff 為
    E[Payofft=5]=0.35×6M+0.65×0=2.1ME[\text{Payoff}_{t=5}] = 0.35\times 6\text{M}+0.65\times 0 = 2.1\text{M}

  2. 貼現至今日
    題目未給貼現率,依慣例在缺乏利率資訊時採 零貼現率(r=0r=0),即直接以 t=5t=5 的期望值作為今天的現值。
    E[Payofft=5](1+r)5=2.1M1=2.1M\frac{E[\text{Payoff}_{t=5}]}{(1+r)^5}= \frac{2.1\text{M}}{1}=2.1\text{M}

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第 2 題

  1. A commercial bank recognizes that its net income suffers whenever interest rates increase. Which of the following strategies would protect the bank against rising interest rates?
    a. Buying inverse floaters.
    b. Entering into an interest rate swap where the bank receives a fixed payment stream, and in return agrees to make payments that float with market interest rates.
    c. Purchase principal only (PO) strips that decline in value whenever interest rates rise.
    d. Sell some of the bank's floating-rate loans and use the proceeds to make fixed-rate loans.
    e. Enter into a short hedge where the bank agrees to sell interest rate futures.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考的是銀行的利率風險管理,以及利率與固定收益商品價格之間的反向關係。

當市場利率上升時:

  • 浮動利率負債的利息支出通常會增加。
  • 固定利率資產的利息收入短期內不變。
  • 利率期貨價格會下跌。
  • 固定收益商品價格通常會下跌。

題目指出銀行在利率上升時淨利下降,表示銀行承受「利率上升風險」。因此,避險策略必須在利率上升時產生收益,以抵銷原有淨利損失。

解題方法

判斷各選項是否能在利率上升時獲利,並抵銷銀行原本的損失。

利率期貨的基本關係為:

市場利率上升⇒利率期貨價格下跌\text{市場利率上升} \Rightarrow \text{利率期貨價格下跌}

若銀行先賣出利率期貨,建立空頭部位,之後利率上升導致期貨價格下跌,銀行便能以較低價格買回期貨平倉,因而獲利:

空頭期貨損益=賣出價格−買回價格>0\text{空頭期貨損益} = \text{賣出價格} - \text{買回價格} >0

此項期貨收益可抵銷銀行因利率上升所減少的淨利,因此應採用利率期貨空頭避險。

選項分析

a. Buying inverse floaters

Inverse floater 是反向浮動利率商品,其利息收入通常與市場利率呈反向變動:

市場利率上升⇒Inverse floater 利息收入下降\text{市場利率上升} \Rightarrow \text{Inverse floater 利息收入下降}

銀行本身已經因利率上升而淨利受損,再持有利率上升時收入下降的商品,會使損失擴大,不能達到避險效果。

因此,a 錯誤。

b. Entering into an interest rate swap where the bank receives a fixed payment stream, and in return agrees to make payments that float with market interest rates.

此交換契約的現金流為:

  • 收取固定利率
  • 支付浮動利率

當市場利率上升時,銀行需要支付的浮動利息增加,但收到的固定利息不變:

利率上升⇒浮動支付增加⇒交換契約損失增加\text{利率上升} \Rightarrow \text{浮動支付增加} \Rightarrow \text{交換契約損失增加}

這會進一步壓低銀行淨利,與避險目的相反。

若銀行要透過利率交換避險,適合的方向應是「支付固定利率、收取浮動利率」,使銀行在利率上升時增加浮動收入,而非支付浮動利息。

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第 3 題

  1. The Ritz Company has a 40-year-old employee who will retire at age 60 and live to age 75. The firm has promised a retirement income of 20,000attheendofeachyearfollowingretirementuntildeath.Thefirm′spensionfundisexpectedtoearn7percentannuallyonitsassetsandthefirmuses7a.20,000 at the end of each year following retirement until death. The firm's pension fund is expected to earn 7 percent annually on its assets and the firm uses 7% to discount pension benefits. What is Ritz's annual pension contribution to the nearest dollar for this employee? (Assume certainty and end-of-year cash flows.) a. 2,756
    b. 3,642c.3,642 c. 4,443
    d. 4,967e.4,967 e. 5,491

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題評量**貨幣時間價值(Time Value of Money, TVM)**中「普通年金(Ordinary Annuity)」之現值與終值應用,以及退休金提撥計畫之現金流收支平衡原理。

  1. 普通年金現值(Present Value of Ordinary Annuity, PVA):
    PV=PMT×PVIFA(r,n)=PMT×[1−(1+r)−nr]PV = PMT \times PVIFA(r, n) = PMT \times \left[ \frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r} \right]
  2. 普通年金終值(Future Value of Ordinary Annuity, FVA):
    FV=PMT×FVIFA(r,n)=PMT×[(1+r)n−1r]FV = PMT \times FVIFA(r, n) = PMT \times \left[ \frac{(1+r)^n - 1}{r} \right]
  3. 現金流收支平衡原則(Actuarial Equivalence):
    在無套利與完全確定之假設下,工作期間所提撥之年金總額於「退休時點」之終值,必須剛好等於退休後所領取之全部年金給付於「退休時點」之折現值。

解題方法

步驟一:界定各階段時間軸與現金流期數

  • 現值起點(t=0t = 0):員工現年 40 歲。
  • 退休時點(t=20t = 20):員工 60 歲退休。提撥期間為 60−40=2060 - 40 = 20 年,每年期末提撥固定金額 CC,共計 20 期提撥款(t=1,2,…,20t = 1, 2, \dots, 20)。
  • 身故時點(t=35t = 35):預期壽命至 75 歲。退休給付期間為 75−60=1575 - 60 = 15 年,每年期末領取 $20,000,共計 15 期退休金(t=21,22,…,35t = 21, 22, \dots, 35)。
  • 年報酬率/折現率(rr):7%7\%。

步驟二:計算退休時點(60 歲,t=20t = 20)所需的退休基金總現值

退休後自 61 歲至 75 歲(共 15 年),每年期末領取 $20,000。該筆現金流在 60 歲(t=20t = 20)時點的年金現值(PV20PV_{20})為:

PV20=$20,000×PVIFA(7%,15)PV_{20} = \$20,000 \times PVIFA(7\%, 15)

PVIFA(7%,15)=1−(1+0.07)−150.07=1−(1.07)−150.07≈1−0.3624460.07≈9.107914PVIFA(7\%, 15) = \frac{1 - (1 + 0.07)^{-15}}{0.07} = \frac{1 - (1.07)^{-15}}{0.07} \approx \frac{1 - 0.362446}{0.07} \approx 9.107914

PV20=$20,000×9.107914=$182,158.28PV_{20} = \$20,000 \times 9.107914 = \$182,158.28

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第 4 題

  1. Midwest Investment Consultants (MIC) operates several stock investment portfolios that are used by firms for investment of pension plan assets. Last year, one portfolio had a realized return of 12.6 percent and a beta coefficient of 1.15. The average T-bond rate was 7 percent and the realized rate of return on the S&P 500 was 12 percent. What was the portfolio's alpha?
    a. -0.75%
    b. -0.15%
    c. 0.05%
    d. 0.15%
    e. 0.75%

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這一題的完整詳解

此題考驗對資本資產定價模型 (Capital Asset Pricing Model, CAPM) 的理解,特別是如何計算投資組合的 Alpha 值。Alpha 值代表了投資組合的超額報酬,即扣除市場風險和無風險利率後,實際報酬超過預期報酬的部分。

CAPM 公式為:
E(Ri)=Rf+βi(E(Rm)−Rf)E(R_i) = R_f + \beta_i (E(R_m) - R_f)
其中:

  • E(Ri)E(R_i) 是資產 i 的預期報酬率。
  • RfR_f 是無風險利率。
  • βi\beta_i 是資產 i 的 Beta 值。
  • E(Rm)E(R_m) 是市場的預期報酬率。
  • (E(Rm)−Rf)(E(R_m) - R_f) 是市場風險溢價 (Market Risk Premium)。

Alpha 的計算方式是:
αi=Ractual−E(Ri)\alpha_i = R_{actual} - E(R_i)
αi=Ractual−[Rf+βi(Rm−Rf)]\alpha_i = R_{actual} - [R_f + \beta_i (R_m - R_f)]

題目中給定的資訊:

  • 投資組合的實際報酬率 (RactualR_{actual}) = 12.6%
  • 投資組合的 Beta 值 (βi\beta_i) = 1.15
  • 無風險利率 (RfR_f) = T-bond rate = 7%
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第 5 題

  1. Assume an economy in which there are three securities: Stock A with rA=10%r_A = 10\% and σA=10%\sigma_A = 10\%; Stock B with rB=15%r_B = 15\% and σB=20%\sigma_B = 20\%; and a riskless asset with rRF=7%r_{RF} = 7\%. Stocks A and B are uncorrelated (ρAB=0\rho_{AB} = 0). Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?
    a. The expected return on the investor's portfolio will probably have an expected return that is somewhat below 15% and a standard deviation (SD) that is between 10% and 20%.
    b. The expected return on the investor's portfolio will probably have an expected return that is somewhat below 10% and a standard deviation (SD) of approximately 10%.
    c. The expected return on the investor's portfolio will probably have an expected return that is somewhat above 15% and a standard deviation (SD) of approximately 20%.
    d. The investor's risk/return indifference curve will be tangent to the CML at a point where the expected return is in the range of 7% to 10%.
    e. Since the two stocks have a zero correlation coefficient, the investor can form a riskless portfolio whose expected return is in the range of 10% to 15%.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

  • 投資組合理論中,組合的期望報酬 E(rp)E(r_p) 為各資產報酬的加權平均:
    E(rp)=wArA+wBrB+wRFrRFE(r_p)=w_A r_A + w_B r_B + w_{RF} r_{RF}
  • 組合的標準差(風險)在資產間無相關(ρAB=0\rho_{AB}=0)且有風險資產與無風險資產時,可寫成:
    σp=wA2σA2+wB2σB2\sigma_p=\sqrt{w_A^2\sigma_A^2 + w_B^2\sigma_B^2}
    無風險資產不貢獻任何變異。
  • 隨機投資組合的期望報酬與風險會落在 有效前緣(Efficient Frontier) 上;若將風險資產與無風險資產結合,可得到 資本市場線(CML),其斜率為市場風險溢酬除以市場標準差(Sharpe Ratio)。
  • 兩只股票互不相關並不等於可以組成零風險的投資組合,除非能找到使 σp=0\sigma_p=0 的權重組合(此時需 wAσA=−wBσBw_A\sigma_A = -w_B\sigma_B),但此組合的權重必須同號,且會產生負向投資(做空),且預期報酬介於兩資產之間。

解題方法

  1. 先檢視題目所給資訊:

    • rA=10%r_A=10\%, σA=10%\sigma_A=10\%
    • rB=15%r_B=15\%, σB=20%\sigma_B=20\%
    • rRF=7%r_{RF}=7\%(無風險資產)
    • ρAB=0\rho_{AB}=0(兩股不相關)
  2. 依照題目「哪一個敘述最正確」進行概念性判斷,而非求具體權重。

  3. 評估每個選項的可行性:

    • a、b、c:描述「投資組合的預期報酬與標準差」的範圍,必須符合有效前緣上任意權重的可能值。
    • d:涉及投資者的無差異曲線(risk‑return indifference curve)與 CML 的切點位置。無差異曲線的切點即為最佳(最適)投資組合,其報酬必在 rRFr_{RF} 與最高 Sharpe Ratio 的資產組合之間。
    • e:聲稱可以零相關的兩只股票組成零風險投資組合,且報酬落在 10%10\%–15%15\% 之間。需檢驗是否真的可以使 σp=0\sigma_p=0。
  4. 計算 Sharpe Ratio:
    SRA=rA−rRFσA=10%−7%10%=0.30\text{SR}_A=\frac{r_A-r_{RF}}{\sigma_A}= \frac{10\%-7\%}{10\%}=0.30
    SRB=15%−7%20%=0.40\text{SR}_B=\frac{15\%-7\%}{20\%}=0.40
    因 SRB>SRA\text{SR}_B>\text{SR}_A,在僅有兩隻股票的情況下,最佳的風險資產組合(即有效前緣上最高 slope)會以 BB 為主。

  5. 任何由 AA、BB、RFRF 組成的有效投資組合,其期望報酬必介於 7%7\%(全部投資於 RFRF)與 15%15\%(全部投資於 BB)之間;其標準差則介於 0%0\%(全投資於 RFRF)與 20%20\%(全投資於 BB)之間。

選項分析

  • a. 「預期報酬略低於 15%,標準差介於 10%~20%」
    • 若投資組合僅包含 BB(或 BB 為主要權重),報酬會接近 15% 且標準差接近 20%。若加入少量 AA 或 RFRF,報酬會下降,標準差會小於 20% 且可低於 10%(例如全投資於 AA 時 σ=10%\sigma=10\%)。因此「標準差在 10%~20%」的說法不是必然,仍有可能低於 10%。此敘述過於限定,不正確。
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第 6 題

  1. Rainier Bros. has 12.0% semiannual coupon bonds outstanding that mature in 10 years. Each bond is now eligible to be called at a call price of 1,060.Ifthebondsarecalled,thecompanymustreplacethemwithnew10−yearbonds.Theflotationcostofissuingnewbondsisestimatedtobe1,060. If the bonds are called, the company must replace them with new 10-year bonds. The flotation cost of issuing new bonds is estimated to be 45 per bond. How low would the yield to maturity on the new bonds have to be in order for it to be profitable to call the bonds today, i.e., what is the nominal annual "breakeven rate"?
    a. 9.29%
    b. 9.78%
    c. 10.29%
    d. 10.81%
    e. 11.35%

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

  1. 債券的價格公式(半年複利):

P=C⋅a ⁣n∣j+F(1+j)−nP = C\cdot a_{\!n|j}+F(1+j)^{-n}

其中

  • CC 為每半年付息金額,C=0.122×1000=60C = \dfrac{0.12}{2}\times1000 = 60
  • jj 為每半年的到期票息率(即名目年率的半值)
  • n=20n=20 為半年期數(10 年)
  • F=1000F=1000 為票面金額
  1. 發行成本的處理:浮動成本 4545 直接減少公司收到的淨資金,等同於把債券的「市場價格」降低 4545。
    若新債券的市場價格(未扣成本)為 PP,公司實際取得的資金為 P−45P-45。

  2. 叫回(call)是否划算:

    • 叫回舊債須支付 叫回價格 =1060=1060。
    • 若發行新債後淨取得資金 ≥1060\ge 1060,則叫回有利。
    • 令 盈虧平衡(break‑even)時:

P−45=1060⟹P=1105P-45 = 1060 \quad\Longrightarrow\quad P = 1105

解題方法

  1. 設名目年到期票息率為 ii,則每半年的票息率 j=i2j=\dfrac{i}{2}。
  2. 以 P=1105P=1105 代入債券價格公式,解出 jj:

60  a ⁣20∣j+1000(1+j)−20=110560\;a_{\!20|j}+1000(1+j)^{-20}=1105

  1. 透過試算或插值法求得使上式成立的 jj,再換算成名目年率 i=2ji=2j。

計算步驟(以簡化插值示範)

| jj(%) | (1+j)20(1+j)^{20} | (1+j)−20(1+j)^{-20} | a ⁣20∣ja_{\!20|j} | PP |
|------------|----------------|----------------|---------------|------|
| 5.0% (i=10.0%) | 2.654 | 0.3769 | 12.462 | 60×12.462 + 1000×0.3769 = 1124.6 |

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第 7 題

  1. What would be the priority of the claims as to the distribution of assets in a liquidation under Chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Act?
    (1) Trustees' costs to administer and operate the firm.
    (2) Common stockholders.
    (3) General, or unsecured, creditors.
    (4) Secured creditors, who have a claim to the proceeds from the sale of specific property pledged to secure a loan.
    (5) Taxes due to federal and state governments.
    a. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
    b. 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
    c. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2
    d. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
    e. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考查《美國破產法》Chapter 7 清算程序中,各類債權人及股東對破產企業資產的分配優先順序。

Chapter 7 的基本原則是:企業停止營運並出售資產,由受託人管理清算程序,再依法律規定的優先順序分配所得。一般清算順位如下:

擔保債權人  >  受託人管理費用  >  政府稅款  >  一般無擔保債權人  >  普通股股東\text{擔保債權人} \;>\; \text{受託人管理費用} \;>\; \text{政府稅款} \;>\; \text{一般無擔保債權人} \;>\; \text{普通股股東}

各類請求權的意義如下:

  1. 擔保債權人(Secured creditors)
    對特定抵押物的出售所得具有優先受償權。例如銀行以土地、設備作為擔保,該資產出售後的所得首先用於清償其擔保債權。

  2. 受託人管理及營運費用(Trustees' costs)
    受託人執行清算、保管及處分資產所產生的必要費用,屬於破產程序中的管理費用,優先於一般債權人。

  3. 政府稅款(Taxes)
    欠繳聯邦及州政府的稅款,通常屬於具有法定優先權的債權,順位高於一般無擔保債權。

  4. 一般無擔保債權人(General or unsecured creditors)
    沒有特定抵押物作為保障的債權人,例如普通供應商、未獲擔保的借款人等。

  5. 普通股股東(Common stockholders)
    股東是剩餘請求權人,只有在所有債權人均獲清償後,資產仍有剩餘時,才可能分配到清算所得。

解題方法

本題只需依據「債權優先於股權、擔保債權優先於無擔保債權」的清算瀑布順序排列。

第一順位是對特定抵押物具有請求權的擔保債權人,即第 4 項。

第二順位是清算程序本身所產生的受託人管理費用,即第 1 項。

第三順位是具有法定優先性的政府稅款,即第 5 項。

第四順位是普通的一般無擔保債權人,即第 3 項。

最後是沒有固定債權、承擔剩餘風險的普通股股東,即第 2 項。

因此排列為:

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第 8 題

  1. To finance the construction of a new plant, Benefield Inc. must raise an additional 10,000,000ofequitycapitalthroughthesaleofcommonstock.ThefirmcurrentlyhasanEPSof10,000,000 of equity capital through the sale of common stock. The firm currently has an EPS of 5.40 and a P/E ratio of 10, with 1,200,000 shares outstanding. If the firm wants its ex-rights price to be 50,whatsubscriptionpricemustitsetonthenewshares?a.50, what subscription price must it set on the new shares? a. 29.55
    b. 33.78c.33.78 c. 39.28
    d. 41.80e.41.80 e. 50.00

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題的核心在於「現金增資(認股權發行,Rights Offering)」之除權後理論股價(Ex-rights Price)與認購價格(Subscription Price)之計算,結合了基礎的本益比評價法(P/E Ratio Valuation)。

相關公式與定義如下:

  1. 增資前每股市價(含權價,P0P_0):
    P0=EPS×P/EP_0 = \text{EPS} \times \text{P/E}
  2. 除權後每股理論市價(PxP_x):
    現金增資後之公司權益總市值,等於增資前總市值加上增資募集之新資金。
    Px=增資前總市值+募集資金總額增資後總股數=N0⋅P0+FundsN0+NnewP_x = \frac{\text{增資前總市值} + \text{募集資金總額}}{\text{增資後總股數}} = \frac{N_0 \cdot P_0 + \text{Funds}}{N_0 + N_{new}}
    其中:
    • N0N_0:增資前流通在外股數
    • P0P_0:增資前每股市價
    • Funds\text{Funds}:預計募集之資金總額
    • NnewN_{new}:新發行股數
    • SS:每股認購價格(Funds=Nnew⋅S\text{Funds} = N_{new} \cdot S)

解題方法

步驟一:計算增資前每股市價(P0P_0)

依據題目給定之每股盈餘(EPS)與本益比(P/E):
P0=EPS×P/E=$5.40×10=$54.00P_0 = \text{EPS} \times \text{P/E} = \text{\$5.40} \times 10 = \text{\$54.00}

步驟二:利用除權價格公式求解新發行股數(NnewN_{new})

已知增資前股數 N0=1,200,000N_0 = 1,200,000 股、募集資金 \text{Funds} = \text{\10,000,000}、目標除權價、目標除權價 P_x = \text{$50.00}$。
代入總市值平衡關係式:
Px⋅(N0+Nnew)=N0⋅P0+FundsP_x \cdot (N_0 + N_{new}) = N_0 \cdot P_0 + \text{Funds}

50×(1,200,000+Nnew)=1,200,000×54+10,000,00050 \times (1,200,000 + N_{new}) = 1,200,000 \times 54 + 10,000,000

60,000,000+50⋅Nnew=64,800,000+10,000,00060,000,000 + 50 \cdot N_{new} = 64,800,000 + 10,000,000

50⋅Nnew=74,800,000−60,000,00050 \cdot N_{new} = 74,800,000 - 60,000,000

50⋅Nnew=14,800,00050 \cdot N_{new} = 14,800,000

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第 9 題

  1. Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?
    a. Preferred stock generally has a higher component cost of capital to the firm than does common stock.
    b. By law in most states, all preferred stock must be cumulative, meaning that the compounded total of all unpaid preferred dividends must be paid before any dividends can be paid on the firm's common stock.
    c. Unlike bonds, preferred stock cannot have a convertible feature.
    d. Whereas common stock has an indefinite life, preferred stocks always have a specific maturity date, generally 25 years or less.
    e. From the issuer's point of view, preferred stock is less risky than bonds.

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這一題的完整詳解

此題考驗對優先股 (Preferred Stock) 特性的理解,並與普通股 (Common Stock) 和債券 (Bonds) 進行比較。

我們逐一分析各選項:

a. Preferred stock generally has a higher component cost of capital to the firm than does common stock.

  • 優先股的成本:優先股的股息通常是固定的,且優先於普通股股息。由於其風險低於普通股(在清算時優先於普通股,且股息支付優先),因此投資者要求的報酬率通常低於普通股。
  • 普通股的成本:普通股的風險較高(股息不確定,且在清算時優先級最低),因此投資者要求的報酬率通常較高。
  • 因此,優先股的資金成本通常低於普通股,而不是更高。此選項是錯誤的。

b. By law in most states, all preferred stock must be cumulative, meaning that the compounded total of all unpaid preferred dividends must be paid before any dividends can be paid on the firm's common stock.

  • 累積性 (Cumulative):累積優先股是指,如果公司未能支付某一時期的優先股股息,則該未支付的股息將累積起來,並必須在未來支付,且必須在向普通股股東支付任何股息之前支付。
  • 法律規定:雖然累積性是優先股的一個常見特徵,並且對投資者有利,但並非所有州法律都強制規定所有優先股必須是累積性的。許多優先股是累積性的,但也有非累積性的優先股。
  • 因此,此選項中的「must be cumulative」表述過於絕對,是錯誤的。

c. Unlike bonds, preferred stock cannot have a convertible feature.

  • 可轉換權 (Convertible Feature):可轉換債券 (Convertible Bonds) 允許持有者在未來將債券轉換為公司的普通股。
  • 優先股的可轉換性:優先股也可以設計成可轉換的,即「可轉換優先股」(Convertible Preferred Stock)。這種股票允許持有者在未來將優先股轉換為普通股。
  • 因此,此選項聲稱優先股不能有可轉換特徵,是錯誤的。

d. **Whereas common stock has an indefinite life, preferred stocks always have a specif

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第 10 題

  1. Kohers Inc. is considering a leasing arrangement to finance some manufacturing tools that it needs for the next 3 years. The tools will be obsolete and worthless after 3 years. The firm will depreciate the cost of the tools on a straight-line basis over their 3-year life. It can borrow 4,800,000,thepurchaseprice,at104,800,000, the purchase price, at 10% and buy the tools, or it can make 3 equal end-of-year lease payments of 2,100,000 each and lease them. The loan obtained from the bank is a 3-year simple interest loan, with interest paid at the end of the year. The firm's tax rate is 40%. Annual maintenance costs associated with ownership are estimated at 240,000,butthiscostwouldbebornebythelessorifitleases.Whatisthenetadvantagetoleasing(NAL),inthousands?(Suggestion:Delete3zerosfromdollarsandworkinthousands.)a.240,000, but this cost would be borne by the lessor if it leases. What is the net advantage to leasing (NAL), in thousands? (Suggestion: Delete 3 zeros from dollars and work in thousands.) a. 96
    b. 106c.106 c. 112
    d. 117e.117 e. 123

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

  • 淨租賃利益 (NAL):NAL=PV(自購成本)−PV(租賃成本)NAL = PV(\text{自購成本})-PV(\text{租賃成本})。若 NAL 為正,表示租賃相較於自購較有利。
  • 稅後現金流:所有可扣除的費用(利息、維護費、租金)在計算時須乘上 (1−T)(1-T)(TT 為公司所得稅率),折舊則屬於非現金費用,只提供稅盾 (折舊×T)(\text{折舊}\times T)。
  • 折現率:使用稅後借款成本作為折現率

rafter‑tax=i (1−T)=0.10 (1−0.40)=0.06=6%r_{\text{after‑tax}} = i\,(1-T)=0.10\,(1-0.40)=0.06=6\%


解題方法

  1. 計算每年的稅後現金流

    年度 1、2年度 3
    自購
    現金支出:<br>‑ 利息 =480=480 <br>‑ 維護費 =240=240720720+本金 4800 = 5520
    稅盾:<br>‑ 利息 ×T=480×0.4=192\times T =480\times0.4=192 <br>‑ 維護費 ×T=240×0.4=96\times T =240\times0.4=96 <br>‑ 折舊 ×T=1600×0.4=640\times T =1600\times0.4=640928928
    稅後現金流   =\;= 支出 – 稅盾−208-208(現金流入)+4592+4592(現金流出)
    租賃
    現金支出:租金 210021002100
    稅盾:2100×0.4=8402100\times0.4=840840840
    稅後現金流+1260+1260+1260+1260
  2. 以 6% 折現率把稅後現金流折現

    折現因子

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第 11 題

Stover Corporation, a U.S. based importer, makes a purchase of crystal glassware from a firm in Switzerland for 39,96039{,}960 Swiss francs, or 24,00024{,}000, at the spot rate of 1.6651.665 francs per dollar. The terms of the purchase are net 90 days, and the U.S. firm wants to cover this trade payable with a forward market hedge to eliminate its exchange rate risk. Suppose the firm completes a forward hedge at the 90-day forward rate of 1.6821.682 francs. If the spot rate in 90 days is actually 1.6381.638 francs, how much will the U.S. firm have saved or lost in U.S. dollars by hedging its exchange rate exposure?

(A) -\396$

(B) -\243$

(C) 00

(D) \243$

(E) \638$

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

這題考外幣應付帳款的遠期避險。Stover 公司 90 天後須支付 39,96039{,}960 瑞士法郎;遠期避險會鎖定未來換匯匯率,將美元成本固定下來。

題目匯率以「每 1 美元可兌換多少瑞士法郎」表示,因此換算應付的美元金額時,須用瑞士法郎金額除以該匯率:

美元成本=應付瑞士法郎瑞士法郎/美元匯率\text{美元成本}= \frac{\text{應付瑞士法郎}}{\text{瑞士法郎/美元匯率}}

解題方法

遠期避險的美元成本為:

39,9601.682≈23,757.43 美元\frac{39{,}960}{1.682} \approx 23{,}757.43\text{ 美元}

若不避險,90 天後按實際即期匯率 1.6381.638 兌換,美元成本為:

39,9601.638≈24,395.60 美元\frac{39{,}960}{1.638} \approx 24{,}395.60\text{ 美元}

避險所節省的美元金額,等於未避險成本減去避險成本:

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第 12 題

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Under normal conditions, a firm's expected ROE would probably be higher if it financed with short-term debt rather than with long-term debt, but using short-term debt would probably increase the firm's risk.

(B) Conservative firms generally use no short-term debt and thus have zero current liabilities.

(C) A short-term loan can usually be obtained more quickly than a long-term loan, but the cost of short-term debt is normally higher than that of long-term debt.

(D) If a firm that can borrow from its bank at a 6%6\% interest rate buys materials on terms of 2/102/10 net 3030, and if it must pay by Day 30 or else be cut off, then we would expect to see zero accounts payable on its balance sheet.

(E) If one of your firm's customers is "stretching" its accounts payable, this may be a nuisance but it will not have an adverse financial impact on your firm if the customer periodically pays off its entire balance.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考查短期與長期負債融資的成本、風險,以及應付帳款的商業信用成本與付款時點。

短期借款通常利率較低,但到期頻率較高,企業須較常安排還款或再融資,因此面臨較大的流動性與利率風險。若其他條件相同,較低的利息費用可提高稅後淨利,進而提高股東權益報酬率(ROE)。

商業信用若採用「2/10, net 302/10,\ \text{net}\ 30」,代表 10 天內付款可享 2% 折扣,否則須在第 30 天支付全額。放棄折扣所承擔的年化成本為:

商業信用年化成本=d1−d×365N−n\text{商業信用年化成本} = \frac{d}{1-d} \times \frac{365}{N-n}

其中 dd 為折扣率,nn 為折扣期限,NN 為最終付款期限。

解題方法

逐一檢視選項中的融資成本與風險敘述,並區分「通常趨勢」與「必然結果」。涉及付款條件時,先比較放棄折扣的成本與銀行借款利率,再判斷該比較能否支持選項所稱的應付帳款餘額。

選項分析

(A) 正確。 短期借款的利率通常低於長期借款,因此在正常情況下,使用短期借款可降低利息費用、提高淨利與 ROE。但短期負債較快到期,企業須更頻繁地還款或再融資,且利率變動較快,因此風險較高。

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第 13 題

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) If the underlying stock does not pay a dividend, it makes good economic sense to exercise a call option as soon as the stock's price exceeds the strike price by about 10%10\%, because this permits the option holder to lock in an immediate profit.

(B) Call options generally sell at a price less than their exercise value.

(C) If a stock becomes riskier (more volatile), call options on the stock are likely to decline in value.

(D) Call options generally sell at prices above their exercise value, but for an in-the-money option, the greater the exercise value in relation to the strike price, the lower the premium on the option is likely to be.

(E) Because of the put-call parity relationship, under equilibrium conditions a put option on a stock must sell at exactly the same price as a call option on the stock.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考歐式/美式買權的價值與提前履約、股價波動度對選擇權價格的影響,以及賣權買權平價關係。買權的履約價值(內含價值)為:

max⁡(S−K,0)\max(S-K,0)

其中 SS 為標的股票市價,KK 為履約價。買權市價通常由履約價值加上時間價值構成;到期時,時間價值歸零。

解題方法

原卷第 6 頁第 13 題列出五個敘述,考查買權是否應提前履約、波動度如何影響買權價值,以及買權與賣權的價格關係。題目未附數值表格或其他圖形資料,因此直接依選擇權定價原理判斷。

逐項檢查敘述是否符合選擇權價值的基本規則:買權價值不低於履約價值;波動度提高會增加買權價值;而賣權買權平價描述的是兩者與標的股票、履約價現值間的關係,並非兩種選擇權價格相等。

選項分析

  • (A) 錯誤。 即使股價高於履約價,未支付股利的買權通常也不宜提前履約。提前履約會放棄尚存的時間價值,並提早支付履約價;若要實現價值,通常可出售買權。股價高於履約價約 10% 並不是提前履約的判斷門檻。
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第 14 題

Leak Inc. forecasts the free cash flows (in millions) shown below. If the weighted average cost of capital is 11%11\% and FCF is expected to grow at a rate of 5%5\% after Year 2, what is the Year 0 value of operations, in millions? Assume that the return on invested capital is expected to remain constant in Year 2 and beyond (and do not make any half-year adjustments).

Year12
Free cash flow-\50$\100$

(A) \1{,}456$

(B) \1{,}529$

(C) \1{,}606$

(D) \1{,}686$

(E) \1{,}770$

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考「自由現金流折現法」:營運價值等於預測期間各年自由現金流的現值,加上預測期末終值的現值。終值以永續成長模型計算:

TV2=FCF3WACC−gTV_2=\frac{FCF_3}{WACC-g}

其中 FCF3=FCF2(1+g)FCF_3=FCF_2(1+g)。題目指出第 2 年後自由現金流以固定成長率成長,且投入資本報酬率維持不變,因此可用此公式計算第 2 年末的終值。

解題方法

原卷第 14 題列出第 1 年自由現金流為 -50、第 2 年為 100;加權平均資本成本為 11%,第 2 年後成長率為 5%,並要求不採用半年度調整。先計算第 2 年末終值,再將終值與第 1、2 年自由現金流折現至第 0 年。

第 3 年自由現金流為:

FCF3=100(1+5%)=105FCF_3=100(1+5\%)=105

第 2 年末終值為:

TV2=10511%−5%=1,750TV_2=\frac{105}{11\%-5\%}=1{,}750

第 0 年營運價值為:

V0=−501.11+100+1,7501.112V_0=\frac{-50}{1.11}+\frac{100+1{,}750}{1.11^2} V0≈−45.05+1,501.50=1,456.45V_0\approx -45.05+1{,}501.50=1{,}456.45
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第 15 題

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Since depreciation is a cash expense, the faster an asset is depreciated, the lower the projected NPV from investing in the asset.

(B) Under current laws and regulations, corporations must use straight-line depreciation for all assets whose lives are 5 years or longer.

(C) Corporations must use the same depreciation method for both stockholder reporting and tax purposes.

(D) Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line normally has the effect of speeding up cash flows and thus increasing a project's forecasted NPV.

(E) Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line normally has no effect on a project's total projected cash flows nor would it affect the timing of those cash flows or the resulting NPV of the project.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考查折舊對專案現金流量與淨現值的影響。折舊是會計上的費用,本身不是現金流出;但折舊會降低應稅所得,因此在公司有足夠應稅所得可抵減時,能產生折舊抵稅利益。

折舊抵稅利益為:

折舊抵稅利益t=折舊額t×稅率\text{折舊抵稅利益}_t = \text{折舊額}_t \times \text{稅率}

加速折舊會把較多折舊費用提早認列,因而使較多抵稅利益提早發生。提早收到的現金流量折現後價值較高,所以在其他條件相同時,加速折舊通常會提高專案淨現值。

解題方法

判斷各選項時,先把「折舊費用」與「現金流量」分開:

  1. 折舊不直接造成現金流出。
  2. 折舊透過減少應稅所得,產生現金節稅效果。
  3. 加速折舊通常不改變資產可折舊總額,因此在完整使用期間內,折舊抵稅利益的總額通常相同;差異在於抵稅利益發生的時間。
  4. 由於較早發生的現金流量折現價值較高,加速折舊通常提高淨現值。

在應稅所得足以使用折舊抵稅利益的假設下,可將折舊抵稅利益的現值表示為:

PV(折舊抵稅利益)=∑t=1nDtT(1+r)tPV(\text{折舊抵稅利益}) = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{D_t T}{(1+r)^t}
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第 16 題

Which of the following statements regarding a 30-year monthly payment amortized mortgage with a nominal interest rate of 10%10\% is CORRECT?

(A) The monthly payments will increase over time.

(B) A larger proportion of the first monthly payment will be interest, and a smaller proportion will be principal, than for the last monthly payment.

(C) The total dollar amount of interest being paid off each month gets larger as the loan approaches maturity.

(D) The amount representing interest in the first payment would be higher if the nominal interest rate were 7%7\% rather than 10%10\%.

(E) Exactly 10%10\% of the first monthly payment represents interest.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考固定利率、固定月付款的本息平均攤還房貸。每期付款由「利息」與「償還本金」組成:

  • 每期利息=期初未償還本金 × 月利率。
  • 每期償還本金=固定月付款 − 當期利息。
  • 因為每期都償還部分本金,未償還本金逐期下降;在月利率固定時,每期利息也會下降,而本金償還額會上升。

題目給定名目年利率為 10%10\%,月利率為

i=0.1012i=\frac{0.10}{12}

30 年按月付款,共有

n=30×12=360n=30\times 12=360

期。

解題方法

設貸款本金為 PP,固定月付款為 AA。本息平均攤還的月付款公式為

A=Pi1−(1+i)−nA=\frac{Pi}{1-(1+i)^{-n}}

第一期的利息為 PiPi,所以第一期付款中的利息比例為

PiA=PiPi1−(1+i)−n=1−(1+i)−n\frac{Pi}{A} =\frac{Pi}{\dfrac{Pi}{1-(1+i)^{-n}}} =1-(1+i)^{-n}
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第 17 題

A 12-year bond has an annual coupon rate of 9%9\%. The coupon rate will remain fixed until the bond matures. The bond has a yield to maturity of 7%7\%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) If market interest rates decline, the price of the bond will also decline.

(B) The bond is currently selling at a price below its par value.

(C) If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond's price one year from now will be lower than it is today.

(D) The bond should currently be selling at its par value.

(E) If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bond's price one year from now will be higher than it is today.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考查債券價格與殖利率的反向關係,以及溢價債券在市場利率不變時,價格會隨到期日接近而向面額收斂。

設債券面額為 FF、年票面利率為 cc、到期殖利率為 yy、剩餘年數為 nn,每年付息一次,則債券價格為:

Pn=cF(1−(1+y)−ny)+F(1+y)−nP_n=cF\left(\frac{1-(1+y)^{-n}}{y}\right)+F(1+y)^{-n}

當票面利率高於到期殖利率時,債券的票息高於市場要求報酬,投資人願意支付高於面額的價格,因此債券屬於溢價債券。

解題方法

本題已知票面利率為 9%9\%,到期殖利率為 7%7\%,且 9%>7%9\%>7\%,所以債券目前價格高於面額。

若市場利率維持不變,一年後債券剩餘年數由 12 年縮短為 11 年。把價格公式改寫為:

Pn=cFy+(F−cFy)(1+y)−nP_n=\frac{cF}{y}+\left(F-\frac{cF}{y}\right)(1+y)^{-n}

因為 c>yc>y,所以 F−cFy<0F-\frac{cF}{y}<0。當剩餘年數從 12 年降為 11 年時,(1+y)−n(1+y)^{-n} 會增加;乘上負係數後,價格會下降。

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第 18 題

Stock A has a beta of 0.70.7, whereas Stock B has a beta of 1.31.3. Portfolio P has 50%50\% invested in both A and B. Which of the following would occur if the market risk premium increased by 1%1\% but the risk-free rate remained constant?

(A) The required return on Portfolio P would increase by 1%1\%.

(B) The required return on both stocks would increase by 1%1\%.

(C) The required return on Portfolio P would remain unchanged.

(D) The required return on Stock A would increase by more than 1%1\%, while the return on Stock B would increase by less than $1%.

(E) The required return for Stock A would fall, but the required return for Stock B would increase.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考查資本資產定價模型(CAPM)。資產或投資組合的必要報酬率為:

r=rf+β×市場風險溢酬r = r_f + \beta \times \text{市場風險溢酬}

其中,rfr_f 為無風險利率,β\beta 衡量資產對市場風險的敏感度。無風險利率不變時,市場風險溢酬增加 1%1\%,必要報酬率的變動幅度等於「貝他值乘以 1%1\%」。

投資組合的貝他值為各資產貝他值的加權平均:

βP=wAβA+wBβB\beta_P = w_A\beta_A + w_B\beta_B

解題方法

A、B 各占投資組合 P 的 50%50\%,因此:

βP=0.5(0.7)+0.5(1.3)=1.0\beta_P = 0.5(0.7) + 0.5(1.3) = 1.0

市場風險溢酬增加 1%1\%,且無風險利率不變,故投資組合必要報酬率增加:

ΔrP=βP×1%=1.0×1%=1%\Delta r_P = \beta_P \times 1\% = 1.0 \times 1\% = 1\%

個別股票的必要報酬率變動幅度則為:

ΔrA=0.7×1%=0.7%\Delta r_A = 0.7 \times 1\% = 0.7\%
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第 19 題

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of cash flows over a project's full life.

(B) One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the time value of money.

(C) One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the cost of capital.

(D) One defect of the IRR method is that it values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future.

(E) One defect of the IRR method is that it assumes that the cash flows to be received from a project can be reinvested at the IRR itself, and that assumption is often not valid.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

內部報酬率(IRR)是使專案淨現值(NPV)等於零的折現率。若初始投資為 C0C_0,各期現金流量為 CFtCF_t,專案期間為 nn,則 IRR 是滿足下式的折現率 rr:

0=−C0+∑t=1nCFt(1+r)t0=-C_0+\sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{CF_t}{(1+r)^t}

IRR 會折現專案各期現金流量,因此納入貨幣時間價值。常見的缺點之一,是它隱含假設:專案產生的中間現金流量,可以再投資並獲得 IRR 的報酬率;若這個報酬率高於實際可取得的投資報酬,假設便不切實際。

解題方法

判斷選項是否描述 IRR 的真正缺點,可檢查三件事:IRR 是否使用完整專案現金流量、是否折現現金流量,以及是否需要與資金成本比較。前三者能排除錯誤選項;最後再辨認 IRR 的再投資假設。

選項分析

(A) 錯誤。 IRR 是根據專案各期現金流量求得,因此會考慮專案完整期間的現金流量。現金流量的時點與金額都會影響 IRR。

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第 20 題

Which of the following statements about valuing a firm using the APV approach is most CORRECT?

(A) The value of operations is calculated by discounting the horizon value, the tax shields, and the free cash flows at the cost of equity.

(B) The value of equity is calculated by discounting the horizon value, the tax shields, and the free cash flows at the cost of equity.

(C) The value of equity is calculated by discounting the horizon value and the free cash flows at the cost of equity.

(D) The value of operations is calculated by discounting the horizon value, the tax shields, and the free cash flows before the horizon date at the unlevered cost of equity.

(E) The APV approach stands for the accounting pre-valuation approach.

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

APV(調整現值法)將企業營運價值與融資帶來的效果分開估值:

V營運=V無負債營運+PV(利息稅盾)V_{\text{營運}} = V_{\text{無負債營運}} + PV(\text{利息稅盾})

無負債營運價值,是將營運自由現金流折現至評價日;融資稅盾則另行估值後加回。無負債營運的自由現金流與終值,通常以無負債股權資金成本 rUr_U 折現:

V無負債營運=∑t=1NFCFt(1+rU)t+HVN(1+rU)NV_{\text{無負債營運}} = \sum_{t=1}^{N}\frac{FCF_t}{(1+r_U)^t} + \frac{HV_N}{(1+r_U)^N}

其中 FCFtFCF_t 是第 tt 期自由現金流,HVNHV_N 是第 NN 期末的終值。利息稅盾的折現率則須依稅盾風險及融資政策決定;例如負債金額固定時,常以負債成本折現。

解題方法

先辨認各選項混淆的三件事:估的是營運價值還是股權價值、自由現金流應以何種資金成本折現,以及利息稅盾應如何估值。

APV 的主要判斷點是:營運現金流與終值先按無負債資金成本折現,再將融資效果的現值納入營運價值。股權價值則須從營運價值扣除負債:

V股權=V營運−DV_{\text{股權}} = V_{\text{營運}}-D
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第 Section B-1 題10 分

Explain the concept of equity as an option. Please provide your answer in English ONLY. (10 marks)

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

「股權是選擇權」是把公司資產視為標的資產、把公司負債到期應償還的金額視為履約價格。股東享有有限責任,因此到期時若公司資產價值高於應償還的債務,股東可清償債務並保留剩餘價值;若資產價值低於債務,股東可放棄公司,最大損失為原投入的股權價值。

因此,在簡化的單一到期日模型中,股權相當於公司資產上的買權。

解題方法與推導

令:

  • VTV_T 為公司在債務到期日 TT 的資產價值。
  • DD 為到期應償還的債務面額。
  • ETE_T 為到期時股東持有的股權價值。

若 VT>DV_T>D,公司清償債務後,股東取得剩餘價值 VT−DV_T-D;若 VT≤DV_T\leq D,股東不再投入資金,股權價值為 00。因此:

ET=max⁡(VT−D,0)E_T=\max(V_T-D,0)

這正是履約價格為 DD、標的資產價值為 VTV_T 的買權到期支付。因此,股權的當前價值可用買權定價架構分析:它取決於公司資產價值、債務面額、債務到期時間、資產風險及無風險利率等因素。

債權人到期取得的價值為:

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第 Section B-2 題10 分

Suppose a company simultaneously issues \50millionofconvertiblebondswithacouponrateofmillion of convertible bonds with a coupon rate of10%andand$50millionofstraightbondswithacouponrateofmillion of straight bonds with a coupon rate of14%$. Both bonds have the same maturity. Is the cost of capital lower on the convertible than on the straight bond? Please explain in English ONLY and also rank the firm's costs of capital on convertible, straight bond, and common stock. (10 marks)

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這一題的完整詳解

核心觀念

本題考查的是票面利率(coupon rate)與資本成本(cost of capital)的差別,以及直債、可轉換債與普通股的風險報酬排序。

票面利率只表示公司按面額支付的利息比例;資本成本則是投資人要求的報酬率。若債券不是以面額發行,票面利率不等於債券的到期殖利率,也不能單獨代表公司的融資成本。

可轉換債除了利息與本金請求權,也附有轉換成普通股的權利。投資人接受較低票息,是因為享有股價上漲時的轉換利益;公司則承擔未來轉換可能造成的股權稀釋。因此,票息較低不代表可轉換債的整體經濟資本成本低於直債。

解題方法

比較三種證券時,應看投資人承擔的風險與要求的報酬,而非只比較票息:

  • 直債只有固定利息與本金請求權,報酬通常最低。
  • 可轉換債兼有債權保障與轉換成股權的上漲機會,報酬要求通常高於直債、低於普通股。
  • 普通股的股利與本金回收沒有固定保障,承擔的風險通常最高,因此要求報酬通常最高。

所以,可轉換債與直債的標準資本成本排序為:

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